Consider the following finite automata F1 that accepts a language L.
Let F2 be a finite automata which is obtained by reversal of F1. Then which of the following is correct?
🎥 Video solution / Text Solution of this question is given below:
In the given automata, transitions are present in both directions among the states. Therefore, reversing the automata does not change the accepted language.
So,
$L(F1) = L(F2)$